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#801 Guest_Xzor

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Posted 09 December 2006 - 05:14 PM

Its an electromagnetic wave that decays exponentially the further it travels.
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#802 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 09 December 2006 - 05:21 PM

Nope, it's an attenuating wave you are describing, evanescent waves have a special characteristic.
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#803 Guest_Маушта!!!

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Posted 09 December 2006 - 05:34 PM

An evanescent wave is a wave exhibiting exponential decay with distance.
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#804 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 09 December 2006 - 05:54 PM

Well, it's somehow the same answer as before...
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#805 Guest_kwiksylver

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 12:52 AM

If what the other people said is incorrect, the only thing I can add is that an evanescent wave is a wave that is reflected off of something with an angle greater to the critical angle so that complete internal reflection occurs.
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#806 Guest_ShadowHobbit

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 01:00 AM

This is kinda dumb... people can just look the answers up on the internet... it's not testing anything... POINTS were deducted for this post by Ody
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#807 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 02:16 AM

kwiksylver is correct.278. Cite different patterns of interference? (2 points)Score board:Eärendil - IIRed Anvil - IIatomicknight - ICoatlicue - Ibasf11214 - 40SirAnthos - 4Eärendil - 2kwiksylver - 2NoFox - 2
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#808 Guest_kwiksylver

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 02:43 AM

I think there are 2 types of interference: destructive and constructive. Destructive is when waves are out of phase and constructive is when they are in phase.
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#809 Guest_Vibronater

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 02:51 AM

Standing and Circular?My teacher wasn't great on Waves and the such...
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#810 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 02:53 AM

RA is correct.280. What was the Michelson originally used for? (2 points)Score board:Eärendil - IIRed Anvil - IIatomicknight - ICoatlicue - Ibasf11214 - 40SirAnthos - 4Eärendil - 2kwiksylver - 2NoFox - 2Red Anvil - 2
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#811 Guest_Vibronater

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 02:58 AM

To test for the existence of the ether.The medium that light passes through (I think so)
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#812 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 03:01 AM

RA is correct.281. What is currently the main usage for the Michelson? (2 points)Score board:Eärendil - IIRed Anvil - IIatomicknight - ICoatlicue - Ibasf11214 - 40Red Anvil - 4SirAnthos - 4Eärendil - 2kwiksylver - 2NoFox - 2
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#813 Guest_Vibronater

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 03:04 AM

Measuring the wavelength of light, for using the wavelength of a known light source to measure extremely small distances, and for investigating optical media. Again I learned that myself so...
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#814 Guest_kwiksylver

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 03:04 AM

It is used as an interferometer.
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#815 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 03:06 AM

Both are correct.282. What does the Laplacian become in a complexe transformation? (3 points)Score board:Eärendil - IIRed Anvil - IIatomicknight - ICoatlicue - Ibasf11214 - 40Red Anvil - 6kwiksylver - 4SirAnthos - 4Eärendil - 2NoFox - 2
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#816 Guest_basf11214

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Posted 10 December 2006 - 08:26 PM

Does it become the Laplace-de Rham operator?
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#817 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 11 December 2006 - 02:32 AM

Nope, it's quite simple... it's a multiplication by anumber, but which?
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#818 Guest_basf11214

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Posted 11 December 2006 - 03:53 AM

Is it i ? That's the most obvious thing I can think of....and the most unlikely answer.
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#819 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 11 December 2006 - 04:26 AM

Not really. When you make a temporal derivative, using the complexe notation, you do equivalently a multiplication by i*t. Similarly, you can do a spatial derivation and multiply by [insert something]... and similarly for the Laplacian.
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#820 Eärendil

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Posted 11 December 2006 - 02:44 PM

I think it is i*c
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#821 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 11 December 2006 - 04:05 PM

Well, 2 mistakes in your answer:1. It's not c.2. Laplacian is a second order derivative and your multiplication is only a first order.
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#822 Guest_Vibronater

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Posted 12 December 2006 - 05:24 AM

Is it j?
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#823 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 12 December 2006 - 05:27 AM

Err... j is just the imaginary number, it's exactly the same as i except that in physics, i is already often used so that j replaces it as to avoid confusion.
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#824 Guest_Vibronater

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Posted 12 December 2006 - 05:29 AM

I meant equals 0...Give us a break, it's advanced calculas :PI know like 10 % of what I need for it...
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#825 Kiririn-shi

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Posted 12 December 2006 - 05:33 AM

Ok... you just multiply by -k².283. How is k defined? (2 points)Score board:Eärendil - IIRed Anvil - IIatomicknight - ICoatlicue - Ibasf11214 - 40Red Anvil - 6kwiksylver - 4SirAnthos - 4Eärendil - 2NoFox - 2
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